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c. 26:20 Katrina says on behalf of the author discussed that pleasure supervenes over eudaimonia and goes on to say that we find this also in Aristotle "but Aristotle doesn't give us a way to understand what he means by supervening." Peter c. 27:56 says of Plato and Aristotle that pleasure is not constitutive even partially of the best life but "comes along free...inevitably [necessarily?]."
Peter--are you trying to give an explanation of what Aristotle means? If so, I agree. But does Aristotle use a word at all close to the current use of 'supervenience'? In particular, what more or otherwise does the 'super' add?
Yes, well spotted: I was trying quickly to translate "supervenience" into non-technical language, as I sometimes do in interviews. Actually philosophers use this term in a range of ways but the basic idea is that we have some phenomenon which is the primary explanation of something, and then something else comes "on top" (hence the "super"), the most common example being that consciousness or mental states generally may "supervene" on brain states: i.e. the brain state is what is "basically going on" causally speaking, but as a side-product or result, you get the mental state (which may or may not have further causal effects of its own).
The Nicomachean Ethics was mentioned a few times, but the Politics wasn't at all (I think).
Was it not part of the commentary tradition, even for the Aristotle completists ?
Good question. I believe there are only notes on the Politics by Michael of Ephesus but no full commentary - it also played very little role in the Arabic speaking world, interestingly. Obviously it was copied in Byzantium though, otherwise we wouldn't have it in Greek today.
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