37 - Hugh Benson on Aristotelian Method
Hugh Benson of the University of Oklahoma chats to Peter about Aristotle's views on philosophical method, and whether he practices what he preaches.
Themes:
Note: this transcription was produced by automatic voice recognition software. It has been corrected by hand, but may still contain errors. We are very grateful to Tim Wittenborg for his production of the automated transcripts and for the efforts of a team of volunteer listeners who corrected the texts.
Peter Adamson: Hugh, I wanted to talk to you in this interview about Aristotelian method, which I suppose raises the question of what we would mean by a method. What do you think philosophical method means in the context of ancient thinkers like, say, Aristotle or Socrates and Plato?
Hugh Benson: I think that's a really good question to start with because I don't think we think much about method anymore, about philosophical method. And one of the things that I really like about Plato and Aristotle is they did devote so much time to the nature of philosophical method. I suppose I enjoy thinking about what I'm doing more than doing it. And fortunately, they did it and thought about what they were doing. But I think because they are concerned with method, I think there are some distinctive features about their concern. One of those distinctive features, I think, is that even though they recognize that there were a variety of philosophical activities, they thought of philosophy as primarily the search for knowledge or wisdom. And so for them, the philosophical method was really the method of acquiring knowledge or searching for knowledge. And so we might call it philosophical inquiry. And the other distinctive feature is perhaps as a result of that, that they saw philosophy as a search for knowledge, that they didn't think of philosophical inquiry as distinct from other forms of inquiry, like scientific inquiry or other sorts of inquiry. They thought of philosophical inquiry as the search for knowledge, maybe KNOWLEDGE in all caps, or robust knowledge, or understanding. But knowledge, as Aristotle sometimes calls it, knowledge "haplos," 'full stop.' And so that's what they were concerned about. And then when one looks at Aristotle, one sees that he has a variety of methods in mind when he's talking about philosophical inquiry. In the posterior analytics, which I know you've talked about already, he seems to talk about demonstration as a potential method of inquiry. In the topics, he seems to talk about dialectic as a method of inquiry. At the end of the posterior analytics and then throughout various treatises, he talks about induction or "epigoge," some kind of method based on the senses as a method of philosophical inquiry. And then in the metaphysics especially, and also in other places, he talks about the "aporetic" method, a method that's based on going through the puzzles on a given subject matter.
Peter Adamson: Because the word "aporia" means puzzle or problem.
Hugh Benson: That's right. And actually, it's centered in Socratic philosophy, as many of your podcasts mention.
Peter Adamson: So speaking of Socrates, one thing I wanted to ask you is, if we're thinking about inquiry, I guess an obvious place to begin thinking about inquiry is how does an inquiry begin? And Socrates, or at least Plato's version of Socrates, seems to have thought that this was a really difficult puzzle, that if you don't know anything, then you might be paralyzed and unable to begin. Do you think that that's actually a good puzzle? Is that a good place to start from when we're thinking about inquiry?
Hugh Benson: I'm not sure I think it is. I think certainly Plato and Aristotle were worried about beginnings. The Greek for that is probably "archae" and "archai" and "archae," the singular, the plural and singular are all over Aristotle and Plato's talks about method. In fact, I think one of the ways that Aristotle distinguishes between those methods that I mentioned earlier is by distinguishing between the different starting points of the method. I think Aristotle was aware of Meno's Paradox. He refers to it in the Posterior Analytics, although I think he's actually worried about a different problem there than the actual paradox. Part of Meno's Paradox is indeed 'how do we begin?' But I think we have to be careful in focusing on beginnings with Aristotle and Plato. We need to be careful that we don't take them to be some sort of Cartesian foundationalists and that they're looking for infallibly certain foundations to begin with. I think instead their worry about beginnings has to do with a worry about devising a kind of systematic, reliable method of inquiry. One way I think about this is a picture. I have this image of playing catch with a golden retriever. When you play catch with a golden retriever, you throw the ball out in the field, the golden retriever sees the ball, comes right back, tail's wagging, it's flourishing in the Aristotelian terms of flourishing. Life couldn't be any better for the golden retriever. But if you're like me and a little perverse, at some point you will trick the dog and either not throw the ball and make it think you have or throw it when it's not looking.
Peter Adamson: We've all done it!
Hugh Benson: My experience with a golden retriever is the golden retriever just goes through this mad search in the field, completely random - and I suppose people who know about this will tell me that there's a method to that madness, but from my perspective it just looks mad. What Aristotle and Plato's concerns about beginnings have to do with is making sure that we don't behave like golden retrievers in our search for knowledge. When we don't know where it is, what they're concerned with doing is giving us someplace to start and some procedure to follow. It won't be an algorithm, it won't guarantee success - but it'll be reliable and systematic and reputable.
Peter Adamson: Okay, so the bar is not set as high as Descartes would set it because the idea isn't to start from something that's absolutely indubitable, but the bar is set higher than just looking around at random and that's why we need a method. Okay, so if Aristotle thinks then that that is a good puzzle and that we do need a method in order to get started, what does he think is the answer? What's the right method to use or does it depend on what I'm inquiring into?
Hugh Benson: Well I don't think it quite depends on what we're inquiring into, although it might, but I think at a certain level of generality it doesn't. Aristotle distinguishes, I think, between two different starting points. He talks about some as being more knowable in nature and some as being more knowable to us. It's not really clear what that distinction amounts to. It might be an ontological and epistemological distinction, but it can't just be an ontological and epistemological distinction because Aristotle seems to think that both those kinds of principles are involved in philosophical inquiry. And in fact we can sort of now look back at those four methods if you think of demonstration, the starting point of demonstration. Demonstration is a kind of deductive system and its first principles for Aristotle have these really special properties. They're true, they're primary, they're immediate, they're better known, they're prior, they're explanatory, they're necessary. Those all look like something that's knowable in nature. Those look like Aristotelian first principles in the sort of strong sense of first principles and that's what distinguishes demonstration from some of these other methods. Induction, for example, its beginnings, its starting points or first principles look more like sensations or perception. Aristotle has an account of how one arrives at, or it looks like he thinks, of how one arrives at demonstrative first principles in the last chapter of the second book of the Posterior Analytics. Dialectic too looks like it might be a way to first principles, those first principles of demonstration, but its starting points are things like "endoxa," and it's difficult to know exactly what that means, but a fairly reasonable translation might be 'reputable opinions,' maybe even sort of the 'common sense.' And then the other method that I mentioned, the aporetic method, you might think that's a way of getting at those demonstrative first principles through a kind of starting point with puzzles and aporia, ways of getting at how to resolve those puzzles are ways of getting at the first principles of demonstration. So if you think in terms of starting points, you'd see a kind of structure, at least in so far as Aristotle has all these methods in mind, that you begin, you can think of part of the method is an acquisition of knowledge of theorems and that method is demonstration and the starting points of that demonstration are these first principles, these things more knowable in nature. And then there's another method, which may include both induction, dialectic, and the aporetic method for getting at the knowledge of those first principles. So it's sort of the starting points of starting points, so to speak. And we might, if we think of all those together, that the sort of starting points of that method you might think of as sort of a phenomena. And then the question is what to include in those.
Peter Adamson: And phenomena means the way things seem to us or something like that. Okay, so actually that makes it sound like if we're talking about these four things as methods, demonstration is a method in a rather different sense because the other three - so you've got dialectic, which is a consideration of reputable opinion, you've got sensation or some kind of empirical research, and you've got the consideration of puzzles. And those three would all kind of work in parallel to each other or something and would get us up, as it were, to first principles. And then once we have the first principles, we could use those to engage in this fourth kind of method, which is demonstration. And so as Aristotle says, Plato was right to ask whether we're on our way to the principles or on our way from the principles because that makes all the difference. Does that mean then that demonstration is a method or philosophical method in a very different sense from the other three so that we should sort of see the other three in one category and then demonstration in another category?
Hugh Benson: Well we might. I don't think it does. You might think that demonstration is more algorithmic than the other three methods. The other three methods may require more judgment, there's less guarantee, you'll get to what you're looking for. But I'm not sure that demonstration is all that algorithmic either, as any of us know who try to do proofs in geometry or logic. There aren't algorithms one can just follow and be certain that one will get the result. So I think they both take judgment, both sides of this method require procedures and recommendations on where to begin and how to follow the procedure once you begin there. And I mean it's certainly the case that there are differences too. I don't want to deny that. But I think Aristotle thinks that, for example, of the work that geometers are doing: some are trying to uncover the first principles of geometry, but some are trying to derive the theorems from those first principles and I think Aristotle would think they're both engaged in the acquisition of knowledge, new knowledge. So there are different procedures to be sure but they're both philosophical methods of inquiry and so it depends on what you think matters in making a method different.
Peter Adamson: Maybe one way of thinking about it would be that all four of these are parts of one big overall method which would be the Aristotelian method. I guess one thing that people often think about Plato and Aristotle is that Plato wanted us to turn our attention away from the physical things around us - and whether that's true or not is a matter of debate - but then they would say if you look at what Aristotle does it's exactly the reverse. So he's out there, he's dissecting animals, he's looking at the world around him so he's some kind of empiricist. But it seems to follow from what you just said that if he's an empiricist it's in a way that's modified by the fact that he has these other methods because for him turnings to sensation is just one of three ways to get to first principles and there's also dialectic and the aporetic method. So do you think that it really doesn't make that much sense to call Aristotle an empiricist as a result?
Hugh Benson: Well I think Jonathan Barnes calls empiricism or empiricist a slippery word and I think he's right about that. I think it depends on what one means by an empiricist. If what you mean is Aristotle spends a lot of time and energy talking about the role of the evidence of the senses in knowledge acquisition I think that's certainly true. He devotes a lot of attention in the treatises to how sensation or perception plays a role in knowledge acquisition, much more than Plato I think, even though I think Plato thought the evidence of the senses did play a role in knowledge acquisition. Aristotle seems to at least be filling that out in considerably more detail. Aristotle also finds fault in the treatises with people who don't seem to pay enough attention to the senses. So I think certainly in the sense of devoting attention to the evidence of the senses Aristotle is for sure more of an empiricist than Plato, in that sense. But I think you're right in terms of asking what the role of the evidence of the senses is in the method of inquiry, the differences between Plato and Aristotle aren't quite as great as they're often made out to be. I think part of it is to underestimate the value of the evidence of the senses for Plato but it's also I think to overestimate the value of the senses for Aristotle, because as you say, dialectic doesn't seem incompatible with the evidence of the senses but it doesn't seem to place a great amount of weight on the evidence of the senses.
Peter Adamson: Maybe it goes back to something you said earlier which is that he talks about trying to be true to the phenomena and for him that doesn't just mean things that you can see or experience, the way someone like Hume or Locke might think of experience. It could also mean things people say, things people do, things people tend to think about... these subjects, and he tends to think about sense experience as being somehow in parallel with that kind of information and it kind of all goes into one big batch of phenomena which we can use to generate inquiry.
Hugh Benson: I think that's exactly right.
Peter Adamson: Okay so that all sounds very good and in a way it sounds makes Aristotle sound like he's got a very plausible way of moving forward from an initial position of apparent ignorance. Do you think this is something that he actually does in his treatises? I mean it's one thing to tell us how he thinks we should go about doing philosophy and it's another to actually write some philosophy and use the method that he's described.
Hugh Benson: That's I think a really good question. It's a question that a lot of scholarship on Aristotelian method has been devoted to, I think especially in recent times. And in fact I think that tension between what Aristotle does in his treatises and what he says about method has led to an argument that has the result that demonstration isn't a method of inquiry, and the argument goes roughly like this: that demonstration is a sort of axiomatic proof-theoretic method based on axioms or definitions or first principles. The second premise is we don't get much of that in the treatises, we do get some, and people who want to defend demonstration have found more of it in the treatises than those who don't want to defend demonstration - but we certainly don't get most of it when one looks at the metaphysics as a whole, or De Anima as a whole, or Nicomachean Ethics as a whole - it sure doesn't look like the first elements. So we don't seem to get that in the treatises, but then the third premise is but the treatises are supposed to be examples of philosophical inquiry. So the conclusion is then that demonstration must not be a method of philosophical inquiry, it must be some sort of method of displaying the completed results of philosophical inquiry, or something like that. Now I'm not particularly persuaded by that argument, in part because I don't think the third premise that the treatises are meant to be examples of philosophical inquiry is obviously true, but what I do think is really valuable about that argument is it points to two things that we have to keep in mind when we think about Aristotelian method. One, we have to take very seriously the question what is it that Aristotle is trying to do in his treatises? Is he engaged in philosophical inquiry? Is he modeling philosophical inquiry? Is he displaying the results of philosophical inquiry? What's he trying to do in those treatises? And the second thing that argument brings out that's essential is that however we answer that it's important, and to some extent I think this wasn't recognized as it should have been earlier, it's important to accommodate what Aristotle says about his method with what he actually does. And not to keep those two things distinct, as it's sort of easy to do, if one just focuses on what he says.
Peter Adamson: And why is that important? Is it because if he says that he's going to do it one way and then he does it another way that would just be kind of philosophically unsatisfying or would it show that we must have the wrong idea about the treatises so maybe they're just for teaching purposes or something and not for inquiry purposes and that's why they don't match up? What exactly would be the worry there?
Hugh Benson: Well I think the worry is that we'd expect Aristotle to be 'genuine,' so to speak, not to describe a method that he's not willing to practice. I mean not to sort of recommend to us: 'here's a way of engaging in inquiry' and yet he goes off and does something else; he's got sort of a secret method back in his office that he actually uses. So I think that's part of it. I don't think, and in fact this is the point about worrying about the third premise, it's not obvious to me that what we have to do is accommodate what Aristotle says about his method with what he does in the treatises. What we have to do is accommodate what Aristotle says about method with what he does in terms of philosophical inquiry, then the question is: how do you figure out what it is that Aristotle is doing and engaging in inquiry? It may be in the treatises - probably is in some treatises, not in others, that sort of thing. But that's a sort of separate question. When is Aristotle engaging in philosophical inquiry? And when he is, that better match up to what he says about philosophical inquiry.
Peter Adamson: So there could be sort of an account of what the inquiry should look like, then there's the inquiry which may be happened off the page, and then there's the treatise you might think about something like the History of Animals, which doesn't look like he's actually telling you about his inquiries. It looks more like he's telling you the results of his inquiries.
Hugh Benson: If you think of dissection as a method of inquiry he's not engaging in dissection...
Peter Adamson: For one thing it's too messy!
Hugh Benson: ...he's engaging in the results of that method.
Peter Adamson: Last question. How optimistic do you think Aristotle is about all this? I mean he's got an inquiry method, or he's maybe got several methods of inquiry, and he certainly seems to think that he himself has made a lot of progress for example compared to his predecessors including Plato. Do you think that he thinks 'most people could do this if they gave it a shot and were as reflective about it as I have been and if they follow my advice.' Do you think that he thinks this is something only the elite could do? Him and maybe a few favored students? And do you think that he thinks - and this may be a slightly separate issue - do you think he thinks there's a lot more to do still or do you think he's pretty much polished it off and that philosophy is completed with him? So how optimistic is he both on the side of how easy this is to do, and how much has already been accomplished by the time he's dead, let's say.
Hugh Benson: There's a certain amount of conceit in Aristotle for sure, and there are moments in the treatises where you get the feeling that he actually thinks he's pretty much finished it all. But I think most of the time he doesn't feel that way. He thinks there's a lot of work to be done. He certainly thinks that it's very hard to do. I think he agrees with Plato that it's a long and difficult road to acquire this knowledge. I think what really distinguishes Aristotle from Plato in a way that's connected to this question of pessimism is that Aristotle seems much more interested in the intermediate states than Plato is. Plato has a view that robust knowledge is so valuable that he just doesn't much care about things that fail to be robust knowledge. Aristotle devotes a lot of attention to identifying and distinguishing, and even being willing to call those cognitive states "knowledge," short of the robust knowledge that he fails to have but he thinks that it can be acquired. So you get distinctions in Aristotle between 'knowledge that' and 'knowledge why,' between universal knowledge and particular knowledge, between knowing something universally and knowing it hoplos or full stop. All of that I think is part of Aristotle. You might even think of it as part of Aristotle's common sense. Plato is sort of willing to bite the bullet and say, 'I know we talk about Benson having knowledge but he doesn't have robust knowledge, so whatever he has just doesn't really matter.' Aristotle's willing to let me have a little knowledge, even though he would agree - we would all agree - that I fail to have robust knowledge.
Aristotle
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Comments
Method
Hi Peter:
Firstly, thank you for investing in such a comprehensive endeavor. It must be mutually rewarding and cumbersome to take on “the history of philosophy without any gaps”; and, I for one have monumentally enjoyed the podcasts. However, despite the fact that I have found many of them stirring enough to comment and haven’t as of yet, recently I took time to listen to the episode on Aristotelian Method. I know I am jumping the gun with upcoming western philosophers by putting forth the query to follow, but I cannot resist. At the start of the podcast, you and Hugh make reference to Plato and Aristotle possibly having an apprehension to “beginnings” with inquiry. This for me has long been a puzzle, as I have a strong background with scientific method; which may be a topic better suited for the collapse of the Aristotelian World View and thinkers such as Descartes, Galileo, Copernicus, Kepler, Newton and others; however, lately, method has struck me as a strange sort of thing (and maybe I have “Zen and the Art of Motorcycle Maintenance” by Robert Pirsig as a partial culprit to my notions, or maybe just Descartes, or a number of other factors). I cannot help but realize that any method is only as good as its premises, or hypothesis, or belief, or axis, or whatever term one chooses– more or less, the beginnings. And here, it seems to me, crossing into an inquiry of episteme is unavoidable. If the matter is this, let’s say: I know with certainty my premises; then, “demonstrating” or providing a proof of my belief is fairly simple using a method – whatever that particular method might be. However, if my premises are not so concrete, the use of any method is moot. It seems then that I have to know in order to know – and this is not inquiry at all – at least in my mind, and I may be wrong. For me, and please let me know if I am off, the point of inquiry is to start without knowledge of something, and in the end gain knowledge of that thing. I understand that a premise must be separate from a conclusion, and that, a conclusion must follow logically from its premises; however, my unrest lies more so with the gulf between foundationalism and the skeptic. So, to make matters more concise, do you believe that Aristotle may have had an epistemological problem with beginnings; in that, he must first know somethings with certainly in order to deduce other things using a method? And further, do you believe this plays some sort of role in Aristotle’s systematic categorization and definition of the world; namely, in an attempt to esoterically (or maybe rather bluntly) show that certain foundations must be established prior to the use of any method? I would certainly appreciate your insight; thank you.
Cheers,
Adam
In reply to Method by Adam
Beginnings
Dear Adam,
That's a pretty complicated question. But I would say the answer is basically "yes": when he talks about getting hold of first principles at the end of the Posterior Analytics, he can't just mean things like laws of logic. Because he talks about getting principles via sense-perception. So he must mean we are grasping certain "things" as you put it, like maybe certain first principles regarding horses if we are studying horses. An example might be something as banal as "horses are animals". This is useful because if you also know, for instance, that animals engage in nutrition, you can infer that horses engage in nutrition (or better: understand why they do, namely, because they are animals and all animals do this). It is banal, but a first principle, because you don't demonstrate that horses are animals on the basis of anything more fundamental. Possibly Aristotle does have something more robust in mind, for instance he might think that the principle is the whole definition of "horse" (which would include being an animal, but also some other things).
And you're of course right -- Aristotle makes this point too -- that if you take something false/shaky as a principle, that will infect the whole chain of inferences you draw from it.
Does that help?
Peter
In reply to Beginnings by Peter Adamson
Beginnings
Thank you for the insight, Peter, it is quite helpful; and I apologize for the complexity of the first question. I think it is interesting that you use the word banal to describe some of Aristotle’s first principles. I have recently read Categories and On Interpretation, and, at times, it seems more like reinventing the wheel than the opposite – but maybe it is because it is easy to take some of his inferences for granted. Something I find remarkable though is about certain features being essential to objects or, if we are sticking with your example, horses; for instance: it would be essential that a horse be a quadruped, but it would not be essential that it be, let’s say, brown because that is accidental. So, in regard to method then, I guess it would make sense that Aristotle expects that one who is knowledgeable about the world would draw inferences from essential “qualities” (for lack of a better word) rather than accidental ones. Would this be a safe assumption? And if so, do you think Aristotle believes it common sense to be able to differentiate between what is essential and what is accidental – in that this can be derived easily from something like sense perception and understanding? Or do you think that Aristotle believes it is a more difficult task to draw understanding from sensation – in that it is easy to have sensations but difficult to understand (have episteme)? Again, I appreciate any thoughts.
Cheers,
Adam
In reply to Beginnings by Adam
Essential vs. accidental
Hi Adam,
That all sounds right to me -- I think it could be a matter of considerable difficulty to decide between essential and accidental features, actually. This is a potentially big problem for him: on the basis of induction how could you know that a feature which seemed essential wasn't accidental? You might, for instance, discover some ducks that don't live in water, having thought that living in water was essential to ducks. I think Aristotle is convinced that our minds are adapted to take on the natures of things around us, which means getting hold of their essential properties through experience. So that gives him reason for optimism (this may make more sense after the later episode on his theory of mind). But he doesn't need to say it is _easy_ to tell essential properties apart from accidental ones, only that it is possible given enough inquiry.
Peter
Aristotelean method in math(s)
In reply to Aristotelean method in math(s) by Michael P
Aristotle and mathematics
Hello,
Thanks for this interesting post. In fact Aristotle mentions mathematics repeatedly in the Posterior Analytics, he clearly sees this as a paradigm case of the kind of demonstrative knowledge he is talking about (or, perhaps one should be more cautious and say that he thinks he can clearly illustrate points about demonstration by using mathematics). Given the work of Euclid at around the same time, and what we know was going on in Plato's Academy (also from examples used by Plato himself e.g. in the Meno to illustrate the method of hypothesis) we know that mathematical inquiry was never far from reflection on the possibility of knowledge. As I describe in episode 51, the immediate successors of Plato seem to have pushed this even further, to argue that reality must be in itself mathematical if it is to be a fit object of knowledge. Or at least that's one way of reading them; and some would say they were here developing themes from Plato himself.
I'll have a later interview episode on the topic of ancient philosophy and mathematics, actually, if all goes according to plan.
I think one difference between the way people nowadays think about mathematics, and the way Aristotle thinks about demonstration, is that mathematicians allow themselves to choose unargued starting points ("axioms") more or less arbitrarily and then study what follows from these. By contrast Aristotle thinks there is a privileged set of true first principles which are the basis for demonstration. I think he might see most (all?) of modern mathematics as dialectical in the sense that it is only arguing from agreed premises; but here I should probably admit that what I know about modern mathematics could be fit into a small isoceles triangle.
Thanks for listening and for the comment!
Peter
In reply to Aristotle and mathematics by Peter Adamson
modern math
Thanks for the reply. Sorry, but I can't resist a follow-up.
The axioms are not at all arbitrary. Actually, axioms are always carefully chosen to produce a recognizable piece of mathematics. For example, let's define Adamson arithmetic to contain constants a,d,m,s,o,n and a binary function + which has the following axioms:
In reply to modern math by Anonymous
Arbitrary starting points
Yes, you're right that "arbitrary" may have been misleading but I think it is technically the right word. What I mean is that in modern maths one can simply choose axioms, and you're right that one chooses not at random but in such a way as to produce something interesting -- but still you get alternate systems which can be studied, e.g. different geometries. (So I basically was trying to say what you say in this latest post but not saying it as clearly as you have.) Whereas Aristotle as I read him thinks there is only one set of true starting points, the first principles from which all demonstrations ultimately proceed.
The question about proof by contradiction is very interesting. That style of argument becomes popular later in philosophy, for instance one sees it a lot in the Islamic tradition and this may be partially due to the influence of mathematics on philosophy. But I think Aristotle doesn't consider this to be a kind of "demonstration" in his sense, since for him a demonstration is a causal explanation of why something is the case (or rather, why some subject S has some predicate P). It's hard to see how that could be achieved by a reductio ad absurdum.
Peter
In reply to Arbitrary starting points by Peter Adamson
Maybe better to ignore the conclusion, such as it is
In reply to Aristotle and mathematics by Peter Adamson
modern math
Thanks for the reply. Sorry, but I can't resist a follow-up.
The axioms are not at all arbitrary. Actually, axioms are always carefully chosen to produce a recognizable piece of mathematics. For example, let's define Adamson arithmetic to contain constants a,d,m,s,o,n and a binary function + which has the following axioms:
In reply to Aristotelean method in math(s) by Michael P
And a note from Hugh Benson
Here's a further thought from Hugh Benson, the interview guest on this episode: "the listener raises an important question which in my view those who are experts do not pay enough attention to, i.e. mathematical *inquiry*. Everything that I read is addressed to proof and display - as though math was a finished product. So Euclid gets a lot of attention. But the process of discovery which results in the Elements is seldom addressed. Of course, part of the problem here is the lack of evidence, but still..."
In reply to And a note from Hugh Benson by Peter Adamson
Thanks again
Thanks to both of you for your replies. I would have more questions perhaps but I think it's about time that, in your shoes, I would ask the listener to trying reading a bit.
Best,
Michael
Examples of Demonstrations in the Natural Sciences
Peter----thank you for these very thought provoking podcasts that take us beyond just the history of these thinkers, their contexts and content of their writings into the philosophical problems themselves.
My question in quite specific: Can you point me to any actual demonstrations that Aristotle gives, meetings his standards, in the area of his writings on Nature--particularly his biological works. I'm not asking about his logical, mathematical or metaphysical works (unless they happen to contain such examples). I'm looking for actual explanatory demonstrations involving universal statements that give in the middle premise what he offers as the immediate cause of P belonging to S. I won't go so far as to require they be necessary truths (although that is one of his requirments) nor that he has actually pegged the right cause.
I'm not asking for the actual demonstrations--just some pointers towards the topic of the demonstration and a reference citation from his writings. Please don't feel required to respond if this is asking for too much work from you (given all your other endeavors) or because my request is way too far back from where your podcasts are currently at.
In reply to Examples of Demonstrations in the Natural Sciences by Otter Bob
Actual demonstrations
That's a good question! It's one much discussed in the literature on Aristotle's zoology; have a look at the further reading on episode 43. But it's at best unclear whether the things Aristotle says in the zoological works are meant to be proper demonstrations; and in fact, there is even debate over the question of how "demonstrative science" relates to the projects we actually see undertaken in the animal books. (Some people think that demonstrations are not involved in discovery, but rather in presenting already-discovered information to students; others disagree.)
I think the best examples you'll find are actually in the Posterior Analytics. He gives two or three such examples there: one is about the cause of thunder in the clouds; another is about broad-based leaves; and then a third is about the cause of an eclipse. Check out book 2 chs. 8 and 16. You can find a freely available online translation here.
In reply to Actual demonstrations by Peter Adamson
Thanks so much for those
Thanks so much for those references. I do understand the controversies surrounding what is really going on in these biological works. And your discussion here with Hugh Benson clarified even more these scholarly disputes.
Thanks again and I don't know how you do it. I can hardly keep up with your responses let alone the podcasts.
In reply to Actual demonstrations by Peter Adamson
Dear Peter,
Dear Peter,
Congratulations on your 200th HOPWAG podcast. They continue to stimulate and deepen my inquiries. A tip of the hat also goes to your helpers behind the scenes and the guests who have joined you. I must not forget your sister, which I believe you mentioned as writing the scripts for the episodes. Or should I have said that credit also goes to your not-a-sister? I've finally caught up with you folks with the current podcast, but I'm hiding this post way back in Episode 37 because my notes are more appropriately posted here.
I'm sure you must remember these, but I've come across three more of Aristotle's scientific demonstrations concerning physical states-of-affairs. These are from the Posterior Analytics, Bk.1, Ch. 13. The first concerns the nearness and non-twinkling of the planets. The second is about the spherical shape and waxing of the moon. I've had fun getting the premises and conclusion stated in the right way and in the right order. It does bother me a bit that the subjects are individuals rather than universals (unless one rephrases it as “anything that is a planet...). These first two are introduced to distinguish between knowledge that a fact is so and a scientific demonstration (explanation) of a reasoned fact via the middle term being the cause. Pointing out this difference in syllogistic reasoning certainly seem primarily a case of presenting a tool for scientific inquiry (teaching to students versus engaging in discovery).
The third example is a bit later in the chapter, concerning (of all things) why a wall doesn't breathe. (OK, not quite a biological fact.) This one bothers me also because it's explaining why something is not a property of a wall (and necessarily so), but that doesn't seem to be a case of scientific understanding (why something is not so), even if we change it from a wall to a comet. Using this example, Aristotle seems to be pointing out two other features of scientific demonstration: 1) a rule to be observed regarding the affirmation or negation of a cause for the inherence or non-inherence of a property and 2) that the cause must not be too remote, which, I've been told, brings up the issue of commensurate universals.
The upshot of this for me is that I need to devise a check list of all the requirements for a proper scientific demonstration, according to “the master”, even if, for any demonstration, they are never all checked off. Back to the study of at least the two Analytics—yes, to “learn my Aristotle”, but more importantly to engage with the problems. I not asking for a reply to all this. I just meant to note three more examples which you can stuff down into your philosophical traveling kit bag.
Thanks again for all your efforts-------------Bob
In reply to Dear Peter, by Otter Bob
Aristotle's examples
Thanks very much! These are indeed famous examples. There is also the eclipse, which is an example of something where you could see the cause directly by perception if you were on the moon (!). These examples all have their problems, and also a later afterlife in history. For instance Avicenna gives the eclipse as an example of something God could know simply by deploying universal knowledge. Generally when I was presenting Aristotle's theory I tried to use examples that avoid the sort of problems you mention here; this does have the disadvantage, maybe, of making the story too smooth (and also suggesting an easier fit with the zoological works than we in fact have in the texts themselves, since I mostly used animal cases, like with the giraffe).
In reply to Aristotle's examples by Peter Adamson
Hello Peter,
Hello Peter,
That helps. I have been looking at Aquinas' commentary on this work and I suspected that there was much later work on these issues. I keep returning to these podcasts, especially Aristotle, because I find them so intriguing. I know I'm going to have other problems where you insights would be appreciated. But that will be for later, if I get my thoughts clarified, and I don't want you to think I expect a reply, given all the other comments you are dealing with.
Thanks again-----Bob
In reply to Hello Peter, by Otter Bob
replies
Don't worry, one of my favorite things about the podcast is getting to chat about this stuff with my audience, so keep firing the comments and I'll do my best to say something useful!
The Application of Demonstrative Proof by Medieval Scholars
Peter, hi.
The question was raised in the podcast whether or not the demonstrative proof or syllogism was in fact for Aristotle a method of philosophical enquiry, but given the impact of Aristotle’s logic and natural philosophy on medieval Christian scholarship it is notable that this issue was evidently not raised: for these scholars the demonstrative syllogism from the Posterior Analytics was indeed a method of philosophical enquiry. Indeed, Copernicus’ heliocentric theory (a sun-centred cosmos) was regarded as falling far short of the requirements of demonstrative proof, which appears to be a significant reason why the physical theory, as distinct from its mathematical utility, was generally rejected by both Catholic and Protestant scholars of the time. The Aristotelian theologian-astronomer Giovanni Maria Tolosani (1470/1 - 1549) offered the following criticisms of Copernicus and his theory:
He is expert indeed in the sciences of mathematics and astronomy, but he is very deficient in the sciences of physics and dialectic. . . A man cannot be a complete astronomer and philosopher unless through logic he knows how to distinguish between the true and the false in disputes and knows the modes of argumentation. . . Hence since Copernicus does not understand physics and logic it is not surprising that he should be mistaken in this opinion and accepts the false as true . . . it is stupid to contradict an opinion accepted by everyone over a very long time for the strongest reasons, unless the impugner uses more powerful and incontrovertible demonstrations and completely dissolves the opposed reasons [an example of principles established by ‘reputable opinions’ (endoxa)?].
How do you Peter view the medieval interpretation and application of Aristotle’s demonstrative proof? Did medieval scholars attempt to apply this proof to natural philosophy in a manner that modern philosophers would argue it was not intended for?
In reply to The Application of Demonstrative Proof by Medieval Scholars by Ian
Medievals and demonstration
Thanks, that's a fascinating post and a great question. I speak about these issues from time to time in the episodes on the Islamic world and will get on to the Latin Christian use of the Posterior Analytics soon. But basically my answer would be that the Post An sets very a high bar for what would count as knowledge (or science: episteme, 'ilm, scientia) and that this caused the medievals various problems. For instance, how can we get from observation of individual things to universal knowledge (universality being one of Aristotle's criteria for episteme)? Can religious beliefs somehow be given the status of knowledge in this strict sense (Aquinas talks about this a lot)? Despite these difficulties there is a very strong tendency to accept Aristotle's logic-plus-epistemology, but to see it more as defining the end result of inquiry than the process of inquiry itself. However there are exceptions, for instance Avicenna is very interested in the question of how we get hold of the middle terms that allow us to complete syllogisms.
In reply to Medievals and demonstration by Peter Adamson
The Application of Demonstrative Proof by Medieval Scholars
Peter, hello again.
You stated in your previous post that for medieval thinkers “. . . there is a very strong tendency to accept Aristotle's logic-plus-epistemology, but to see it more as defining the end result of inquiry than the process of inquiry itself” and I have been pondering whether this is actually or generally the case, whilst being mindful that I may have misunderstood you. In medieval universities in Europe - as I am sure you know - it was the practice to require students to first master the skills of learning before beginning a study of specific subjects (mathematics, astronomy etc.); these skills included grammar, rhetoric and dialectic or logic, what collectively was known as the trivium. The importance of this requirement for the true acquisition of knowledge is perhaps reflected in Tolosani’s reference in my previous post to the “modes of argumentation”, so I would find it surprising if medieval scholars side-stepped the process of enquiry, although I do believe I see a problem with applying it to enquiries of the natural world. I am also aware of course that personal agendas may also affect the “modes of argumentation”. Nevertheless, I think the problem posed by Copernicus’ heliocentric system may be illuminating, suggesting the importance attributed to the process of enquiry and in particular to premises.
Copernicus’ description of the cosmos introduced radical changes in the location and behaviour of the Earth and its relationship to the other planets and the sun. One might expect, therefore, that such radical changes would have notable consequences for our observations of the heavens, but within the limits of current observational capability nothing had changed: the heavens in this new configuration looked just the same. How could this be? From the Aristotelian astronomers’ perspective Copernicus would have provided a premise (a sun-centred cosmos) that contrary to Aristotle’s standard of demonstrative proof did not lead uniquely and necessarily to a certain and necessary conclusion (the known observable cosmos) as the existing geocentric model also satisfied this conclusion and had in addition served as a description of the heavens for two thousand years so giving that model priority (endoxa or ‘reputable opinion’). It strikes me that given the difficulty in the 16th century of acquiring empirical data to resolve the question of which cosmological theory was true the premises upon which a theory’s conclusion rested were of especial importance for medieval scholars, even more so than the enquiry’s end result. Not having read Copernicus’ own work on the subject - in English, Six Books on the Revolutions of the Celestial Orbs - I would not know how to represent his central argument in terms of an Aristotelian syllogism, if that should even be possible, but certainly Tolosani regarded the theory to fail to meet such exacting standards and accepting “the false as true”: I remind your readers that Aristotle’s logic of demonstrative proof prevailed in the universities and among scholars of the time. Does not all this Peter at least suggest the process of enquiry to be important to medieval scholars?
All the best,
Ian.
In reply to The Application of Demonstrative Proof by Medieval Scholars by Ian
Logic and inquiry
What I meant is that Aristotle's notion of a demonstrative syllogism and, more generally, the posterior analytics can be thought of either as outlining a method of scientific inquiry or a way of presenting results achieved through some other process. There's a contemporary debate about which of these is the right way to interpret the Post An itself. However if you take other parts of the Organon, especially dialectic (the Topics), then the medievals do think of that as a model of inquiry - just think of the disputed question! But how that relates to specifically empirical inquiry is another question; what we really want is an account of how inductive inference works, and Aristotle is famously rather elusive on that though he does make relevant comments like in the final chapter of the Post An.
There is of course a further issue about how anything in Aristotle relates to the traditional trivium and quadrivium; as we've seen a bit, and will be seeing more soon on the medieval episodes, Aristotelian logic was very incompletely known up through the 12th c and then there is a period where it pushes out the traditional methods of grammar, rhetoric and (early) dialectic/logic. I will actually be doing a whole episode on that later this year, so stay tuned...
Hence that saying...
As my father used to say, "Don't search for knowledge like a retriever who's lost their ball." Wise man, and he was right, I think, to a great pedigree. Whoops, I meant degree. But sometimes, when one has absolutely no idea where the ball of knowledge lies, one needs to search helter-skelter, willy-nilly, and here and there, hoping one isn't chasing their tail.
Aristotelian Method discussion
hello, this is an interesting episode.
Thank you for the introduction to Aristotle's: inquiry,Dialectic, beginnings, demonstration, and first principles. I also liked the dog analogy. i'll be interested to learn more about Aristotle's Philosophy!
thanks again,
Glenn
Aristotle vs Plato
As a person having read no philosophy first hand with the exception of Spinoza but only second hand information I am struck at how these episodes on Aristotle are so much easier to understand than those on Plato and before. I was wondering if that is because he does use method in his treatise rather than dialogue and argument. Should I say more down to earth. If you don't mind if I followup here on my post on episode 29 my daughter did show a great interest in the podcasts when I mentioned them to her but whether it materializes is hard to say. Busy lady as I said.
Aristotle vs Plato
Oh let me also ask you if you ever talk about Spinoza in these podcasts. I suppose reading him was what made me want to see where he might have come from in his ideas.
In reply to Aristotle vs Plato by Jerrie
Spinoza
I will definitely devote a lot of attention to Spinoza when I get to him chronologically! I don't think he has been mentioned much, maybe a couple of times in passing like maybe about Maimonides influencing him, for instance.
Your point about Aristotle being easier to understand is interesting. I think reading the primary texts you would have the opposite sense: Plato is a lot easier to read (and more fun too) than Aristotle. But it is perhaps easier for someone like me to explain Aristotle clearly just because there are fewer questions about what in general is going on: Plato writes dialogues, his authorial intentions are unclear, he gives you lots of perspectives on each issue, his views developed more than Aristotle's, etc.
Or maybe I just got better at writing podcasts as I went along?
In reply to Spinoza by Peter Adamson
Aristotle vs Plato
That's interesting. Time for me to jump into the actual text I guess. Any suggestions of where to start with that?
In reply to Aristotle vs Plato by Jerrie
Where to jump in
If you mean Plato, then a popular first choice would be the Euthyphro: it's short and gives you a sense of the classic "Socrates as refuter" character. And then maybe the Meno and/or Phaedo which shows how Plato used that character to start exploring issues in epistemology and metaphysics.
In reply to Where to jump in by Peter Adamson
Jumping in
Thank you. Just one more possible recommendation. Which works of Aristotle would best contrast with these as starting points or good comparisons
In reply to Jumping in by Jerrie
Pairing Aristotle with Plato
Aristotle's De Anima ("On the Soul") would make an obvious match with the Phaedo, since the latter is about the immortality of the soul.
Aristotle vs Plato
Phaedo vs De Anima on reading through left me with the same conclusion that Aristotle is easier to understand, and I think for just the reasons you reiterated as to why they are easier for you to explain. To paraphrase from the De Anima, our predecessors were wrong in endeavoring to fit the soul into a body without determining the nature of that body...For the actuality comes to be developed by its potentiality, says everything. Plato doesn't go deep enough to first causes which makes it difficult to grasp his arguments. whether they are good or not or even understanding them. He assumes a lot of previous knowledge which of course I don't have. Then there is I'm an American whose culture is more a down to earth Aristotlian one than the upward looking Britain Platonic.
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